QUESTION: IS the Lord's Supper to be observed today?



Reference: We only use the King James Bible.

A. Where is the term, "Lord's Supper"?

I Corinthians 11:20 Please note the word "not" in this verse.

 B. What place in the Bible is Paul referring to about the Lord's Supper?

Matthew 26: 19-29

Let us now discuss the two questions that have been asked.

1. In I Corinthians 11:20 the "not" is in the verse

A. Into one place-assembly-it is not to eat the Lord's supper.

1. The supper was to be eaten at home not in the assembly place.

Matthew 26:17-18 "At thy house" not at the temple or synagogue (appointed place of meeting)

2. In Paul's letter I Cor 11 :2 1 he notes "own supper" in

I Cor 11 :22 their "houses"

The Corinthians had their own houses. We can then reason that they are not

under the doctrine of Acts 2:38-45. If they had houses of their own, then

Paul had not told them to sell all they have nor had the fear of the Holy

Ghost moved them to sell all they had. Nor has the Holy Ghost done that

today. Thus when Paul says ''not'' in I Cor 1 1 :20 and I Cor 1 1 :22 he means

it. The thought of the Corinthians having a house legally by the doctrine

presented them by Paul (not telling them to sell all they had) and by their

actions shaming them that had not. (Church of God-I Cor 1 1 :22, which is

the church of Matt 16: 18 and Acts 2:41 "added unto them") Who is the

"them" of Acts 2:41? Matt 26:20 " the twelve", Jesus sang a hymn with

the twelve, only recording singing of Christ. Then Heb 2: 1 1-12, tells me

that the Church of God was the 12 Apostles.

B. Then the doctrine of the 12 apostles is the doctrine of the eating of the

Lord's Supper and being told to sell all that they had with the

breaking of bread. Luke 12:32-33

11. In Matt 26:26 when Jesus took bread he took it fiom the Passover meal.

According to Ex 12:43-49 no stranger shall eat thereof. This would then

exclude Gentiles uncircumcised.

Note: Act 2:22 and Acts 2:36 isn't Peter speaking to all the House of

Israel, not to Gentiles.

We see in Matt 26:28 that the Blood of Christ is for those that break

the bread often is for the remission of sins and also for "many" not all

1. Peter refers to remission in Acts 2:38. Peter believes in

Acts 3: 19 that their sins would be blotted out at the 2nd coming

the presence of the Lord.

2. Why would Peter tell the Gentiles in Acts 10:43, remission if

that wasn't his doctrine?

We see Paul the apostle of the Gentiles speak differently in Eph 1:7,

Col 1 : 14, Col2: 13. Paul says to those he preached to that they were

already forgiven. Eph 4:32 tells us that we were forgiven for Christ's

sake. We do not have to wait for the 2nd coming to have our sins

blotted out. We are already saved I Cor 1 : 18, already forgiven,

Col 1 : 14, already sealed, Eph 1 : 13-14. Then why would we

continually break bread looking for the 2"d coming observing the

doctrine of the 12 apostles with the thought of remission of sins.

We are the church which is His Body, Eph 1 : 19-23, I Car 12:27,

We are placed into the Body by one Spirit, I Cor 12: 13 and this

Spirit is given to us when we hear the Gospel of our salvation,

Eph 1 : 13. We trust our Gospel and are sealed with that Spirit that

places us into the one Body. Paul, the apostle of the Gentiles,

Rom 1 1 : 13, preaches the Gospel in I Cor 153-4. With trust of this

Gospel we that are saved have no fear of remission of sins, but the

peace of already being forgiven.

Trust the Lord Jesus Christ to be your forgiveness for He died for our sins

according to the scriptures, and was buried and rose again the third day according

to the scriptures.