Mid-Acts Dispensationalism and the
Dispensation of Grace
"Rightly dividing the word of
truth" (2 Tim. 2:15)
Many Dispensationalists
do not believe this present dispensation of grace (Eph. 3:2) began until Acts
28, or shortly thereafter. Even though this is a belief held mainly by Acts 28
Dispensationalists, it is also shared by a few Mid-Acts
Dispensationalists. But contrary to the Acts 28 "camp", these mid-Acts Brothers
hold the common mid-Acts belief that the present church began during the
Mid-Acts period (sometime between Acts 9 and Acts 15); they just don't believe
the dispensation of grace was in effect at that time.
But the problem
with this teaching is that it only seems to be based upon imagined
doctrinal differences between Paul's earlier epistles and his later ones, and
appears to be a stretch of several established facts. For example, it is
certainly a fact that Paul's "manner" was to preach first in the Jewish
synagogues (see Acts 17:1-4). But advocates of this teaching seem to assume that
Paul always preached to the Jew first prior to Acts 28, thereby
reading their own understanding of the words "to the Jew first" into passages
such as Romans 1:16. These passages, though, never state that Paul always
preached the gospel to the Jew first before going to a Gentile. Nor does any
other passage.
Likewise, advocates of this teaching also make too much
of the fact that in the book of Acts, when Paul preached in the Jewish
synagogues, there were often Gentiles present, worshipping along with those Jews
(see Acts 13:42-48; Acts 14:1-2; Acts 18:4-6). In effect, those Gentiles would
be seen as "blessing" the nation of Israel, because they came to the Jewish
synagogues in order to worship the God of Israel, prior to Israel's "fall". This
fact is then contrasted to the circumstances surrounding Paul's prison epistles
(written after Acts 28), when he wrote only to believers who had already placed
their faith in the Lord Jesus Christ. As a result, it is theorized that the six
epistles Paul wrote during the Acts period (Romans, Galatians, both Corinthian
epistles, and both Thessalonian epistles) were written exclusively to Gentiles
who were allied with Israel, while Paul's prison epistles (written after Acts
28) were all written to believers like us, who have never been allied with
Israel.
So, because believers today did not hear the gospel for the
first time in a Jewish synagogue, we never "blessed" Israel, as those during the
book of Acts did. The conclusion is therefore drawn that none of those six
epistles Paul wrote during the Acts period are written directly to us today.
Since we no longer need to be allied with Israel in order to hear the gospel
(unlike those Gentiles to whom Paul preached in the Jewish synagogues), this
would mean that only Paul's prison epistles would be written directly to us
today.
In short, an overall summary of this teaching would be to say
that its advocates believe Paul actually changed his doctrine
after he wrote his Acts epistles.
But again, this teaching seems to be
based upon imagined doctrinal differences between Paul's Acts
epistles and his prison epistles, rather than real differences. Like most
teachings that are open to question, this one is far too dependent upon a few
select facts, and requires its advocates to make far too many assumptions.
Yes, most of the Gentiles to whom Paul preached during the
book of Acts were indeed allied with the Jewish religion. But in order to fully
accept the above teaching, one needs to assume that all these Gentiles who
believed were exclusively allied with Israel during that time; and
this simply cannot be proven. Just because Paul preached to Gentiles who were
following the Jewish religion in Acts 13 and Acts 18, this still does not mean
he did so during the entire Acts period.
For example, when Paul healed a
man at Lystra in Acts 14, those idolaters who tried to sacrifice to Paul and
Barnabas were probably Gentiles who had never been allied with the Jewish
religion in their life. Likewise, when Paul disputed in Athens "in the market
daily with them that met with him" (Acts 17:17), he could have also been
preaching to Gentiles like us, who had never been allied with the Jewish
religion. So, those who believe that Paul only preached to Gentiles that blessed
Israel during the book of Acts must assume that the Lystrans of Acts 14 and the
Athenians of Acts 17 were all Jews; and this simply cannot be proven.
Finally, though, after writing epistles to the Romans, Corinthians,
Galatians, and Thessalonians, Paul arrived in Rome as a prisoner in Acts 28.
When the Jewish leaders in Rome came to his lodging, he reasoned with them "both
out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening"
(verse 23). But after some of them failed to believe the things he spoke, he
reprimanded these Jews, and stated that the salvation of God was "sent unto the
Gentiles", according to Acts 28:23-31 -
23: And when they had
appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he
expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus,
both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till
evening.
24: And some believed the things which were spoken, and some
believed not.
25: And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed,
after that Paul had spoken one word, Well spake the Holy Ghost by Esaias the
prophet unto our fathers,
26: Saying, Go unto this people, and say, Hearing
ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and not
perceive:
27: For the heart of this people is waxed gross, and their ears are
dull of hearing, and their eyes have they closed; lest they should see with
their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and
should be converted, and I should heal them.
28: Be it known therefore unto
you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will
hear it.
29: And when he had said these words, the Jews departed, and had
great reasoning among themselves.
30: And Paul dwelt two whole years in his
own hired house, and received all that came in unto him,
31: Preaching the
kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ,
with all confidence, no man forbidding him.
Consequently, those who
hold the above-mentioned viewpoint conclude that because Paul preached to
Gentiles who were worshipping in the Jewish synagogues in Acts 13 and 18, the
salvation of God was never "sent unto the Gentiles" until Acts 28:28 (see
above), partly because Paul never used this exact phraseology prior to Acts
28:28. Even though he specifically told the unbelieving Jews in Acts 13:46,
"...we turn to the Gentiles", and stated in Acts 18:6, "...from
henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles", he never stated that the salvation
of God was "sent" to the Gentiles prior to Acts 28:28. This would mean that any
Gentile in the book of Acts who was NOT allied with Israel had no hope of
hearing the gospel until after Acts 28, when Paul changed his doctrine to
include everyone.
As mentioned earlier, further support of this teaching
is also drawn from the fact that during the time period covered by the book of
Acts, Paul stated in Romans 1:16 (an Acts-period epistle) that the gospel of
Christ is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; "to
the Jew first" and also to the Greek; and he states in Romans 2:9-10 that
God will render tribulation and anguish upon every soul of man that doeth evil,
"of the Jew first", and also of the Gentile; But glory, honour, and
peace, to every man that worketh good, "to the Jew first", and also to
the Gentile. Great emphasis is placed upon the fact that Paul uses the phrase
"the Jew first" in these passages.
So, the above passages
are all used to support the teaching that the epistles Paul wrote during the
book of Acts were only written to Gentiles who were allied with Israel, and not
to us today. But again, in order to fully accept this teaching, we would need to
read Ro.1:16 as if it stated that the gospel of Christ is the power of God unto
salvation "to the Jew first, and also to the Greek, but only if the Greek
blesses Israel ". Likewise, if Gentiles who did not bless Israel had no
hope until the salvation of God was "sent unto the Gentiles" in Acts 28:28, we
would need to assume that every Gentile Paul preached to and wrote to during the
Acts period was allied with Israel. And such assumptions are neither proveable,
nor believeable, in the view of most mid-Acts Dispensationalists. Just because
it was Paul's "manner" to preach first in the Jewish synagogue (Acts 17:1-4),
that doesn't mean he only preached to Gentiles that blessed Israel during
the Acts period.
THE DISPENSATION OF THE GRACE OF GOD (EPH.
3:2)
Additionally, many of these
mid-Acts brethren who don't believe the dispensation of grace began until Acts
28 also belive that the dispensation of the grace of God (Eph. 3:2) is different from the dispensation of God (Col. 1:25). This teaching, though, is based in part upon the
flawed logical reasoning that different terms must always denote different
topics. For instance, we know that different "gospels" are identified by using
different terms (i.e., the gospel of the kingdom is not the gospel
of the grace of God). In like manner, the conclusion is then drawn
that each dispensation mentioned in Paul's epistles would also be different,
since each is denoted by a different term. In other words, since 1 Cor. 9:17
refers to the dispensation of "the gospel", while Eph. 3:2 refers to the
dispensation of "the grace of God", and Col. 1:25 simply refers to the
dispensation of "God", the conclusion is drawn that these three are all
different dispensations.
But do differing terms always denote different topics? Of course not. For example,
Paul also writes concerning "the gospel of your salvation" (Eph. 1:13), "my
gospel" (Ro. 2:16 and 16:25; 2 Tim. 2:8), "our gospel" (2 Cor. 4:3; 1 Thess.
1:5; 2 Thess. 2:14), "the gospel of his Son" (Ro. 1:9), "the gospel of Christ"
(Ro. 1:16; 15:19 and 15:29; 1 Cor. 9:12 and 9:18), "Christ's gospel" (2 Cor.
2:12), "the glorious gospel of Christ" (2 Cor. 4:4), "the gospel of our Lord
Jesus Christ" (2 Thes. 1:8), and simply "the gospel" (Ro. 1:15; 11:28; 1
Cor.1:17; 4:15; 9:16-18; 9:23; 15:1; Eph. 3:6; Col. 1:5 and 1:23; 2 Tim. 1:8 and
1:10; etc.). But it would be foolish indeed to conclude that these are all
different gospels, just because Paul is using different terms.
Likewise,
Paul also stated in the book of Galatians that there were some who would pervert
"the gospel of Christ" that he was preaching (Gal. 1:6-7); yet he also stated in
the very next chapter that the gospel of the "uncircumcision" was committed to
him (Gal. 2:7). But again, it would be silly to conclude that the gospel of the
uncircumcision is completely different from the gospel of Christ, just because
Paul uses different terms (especially since he also states in Gal. 1:8-9 that
any man who preaches another gospel is to be "accursed"). It is therefore also
erroneous to conclude that the dispensation of the grace of God
(Eph. 3:2) is different from the dispensation of God (Col. 1:25), just because
Paul uses different terms in each passage.
Another erroneous aspect of
the above teaching is the idea that the "mystery" of Romans 16:25-26 is
different from the "mystery" of Eph. 3:1-9. Again, though, this is only another
theory, based upon imagined doctrinal differences between Paul's Acts
epistles and his prison epistles. The theory is that during Paul's Acts
ministry, when he revealed the mystery of Romans chapter 16 (which is now made
known to all nations by the scriptures of the prophets, according to Ro.
16:25-26), he had not yet revealed the mystery of Ephesians chapter 3 (which
supposedly can NOT be made known to all nations by the scriptures
of the prophets). Instead, it is alleged that the mystery of Ephesians chapter 3
is "unsearchable" in the Old Testament scriptures, and therefore could not have
been revealed until after Acts 28 (when the dispensation of the grace of God
supposedly began).
But again, this appears to be an erroneous conclusion,
because neither one of the above-mentioned passages says any such thing. Paul
never states that the mystery of Ephesians chapter 3 cannot be made known
by the scriptures of the prophets. Instead, concerning the fellowship of the mystery in Ephesians chapter 3, Paul
simply states that it was previously "hid in God", in Eph. 3:1-9 -
1:
For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
2: If
ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to
you-ward:
3: How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I
wrote afore in few words,
4: Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my
knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
5: Which in other ages was not made known
unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets
by the Spirit;
6: That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same
body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
7: Whereof I was
made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the
effectual working of his power.
8: Unto me, who am less than the least of all
saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the
unsearchable riches of Christ;
9: And to make all men see what is the
fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid
in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:
According to the
above passage, the "mystery" was that "the Gentiles" (that is, UNcircumcised Gentiles) could ever be acceptable to God in the
first place, by becoming "fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of
his promise in Christ by the gospel" (verse 6). But in contrast to the
previously mentioned theory, it is my understanding that this is the same
mystery Paul refers to in Romans chapter 16, which the Lord gave to him by
revelation. This mystery is now made known "by the
scriptures of the prophets", according to Ro. 16:25-26 -
25: Now to
him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching
of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept
secret since the world began,
26: But now is made manifest, and by the
scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God,
made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
There is,
however, another explanation of the above passage, which is also plausible.
There are other Mid-Acts Dispensationalists who think Paul meant that God is
able to "stablish" ("establish") believers according to:
1. His
(Paul's) gospel, and
2. The preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the
revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, but now
is made manifest, and
3. By the scriptures of the prophets, according to the
commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience
of faith.
In the end, though, as far as the mystery of Ephesians 3 is
concerned, it makes no difference which view we take concerning the mystery of
Romans 16. It doesn't matter if we believe the mystery of Romans 16 is
established according to the above three items, or if we believe it is now made
known by the scriptures of the prophets. Either way, Paul never says the mystery
of Ephesians 3 is different from the mystery of Romans 16. Nor does he ever
state that the "fellowship of the mystery" in Eph. 3:1-9 cannot be made known by
the Scriptures of the prophets. This may be one logical conclusion; but it is
not the only logical conclusion. Just because some mystery was previously "hid
in God", that does not mean the mystery cannot now be "made known" by the
Old Testament Scriptures.
For example, in view of several Old Testament
passages requiring every male to be circumcised (Gen. 17:14, Ex. 12:48, Isaiah
52:1, Ezekiel 44:7-9, etc.; compare Acts 10:28 and 11:1-3), another "mystery"
which had been previously "hid in God" concerned the fact that the Lord's gifts
could ever apply to UNcircumcised Gentiles at all. This would have been
unheard of in Old Testament times. Yet Paul now makes this fact clearly known
"to all nations" (just as he does the mystery of Ro. 16:25-26) by referring to the scriptures of the prophets, in Eph.4:7-8 -
7: But unto
every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of
Christ.
8: Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity
captive, and gave gifts unto men.
As a result, since the above
quotation is based upon the "scriptures of the prophets" (Psalms 68:18), Paul is
simply showing how this Old Testament passage still applies to the church today.
Yet before Paul received this revelation, this fact was indeed "hid in
God", as was the "fellowship of the mystery" (Eph. 3:9), as well as the mystery
of Ro. 16:25-26. The Old Testament saint had no idea that the Lord's gifts could
ever apply to Uncircumcised Gentile believers; but we now have Paul's epistles
to tell us they do, because he directly applies the scriptures of the prophets
(Psalms 68:18) to all Gentile believers today.
Another questionable
teaching concerning the mystery of Ephesians 3 revolves around Paul's statement
in verse 8 that he preached the "unsearchable" riches of Christ. This passage is
interpreted to mean that the mystery of Ephesians 3 is "unsearchable" in the Old
Testament, because it was supposedly "hid in God" (contrary to the mystery of
Romans 16). But again, this appears to be an erroneous interpretation, because
Paul never states that the mystery itself is "unsearchable". Instead, he plainly
states that the "riches of Christ" are "unsearchable", in Eph. 3:8-9
-
8: Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace
given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of
Christ;
9: And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery,
which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all
things by Jesus Christ:
Consequently, we should be careful not to
read our own thoughts and ideas into the above passage, and simply allow it to
say what it says - It is the "riches of Christ" that are "unsearchable", rather
than the actual mystery.
But even if Paul did mean the mystery of
Ephesians 3 was "unsearchable", the word "unsearchable" still would not
necessarily refer to the Old Testament scriptures. For example, Paul also states
that God's judgments are "unsearchable" in Ro. 11:33-34; yet the Old
Testament is filled with the judgments of God (see, for example, Exodus 21). So,
because Paul is not referring to the Old Testament when he uses the word
"unsearchable" in Ro. 11:33, then neither is he necessarily referring to the Old
Testament in Eph. 3:8. And since he also states in 1 Cor.2:10 that the Spirit
searches all things, the term "unsearchable" in Eph. 3:8-9 only means that we
ourselves cannot search the riches of Christ that Paul preached, but must rely
upon the Holy Spirit to do so.
Accordingly, since it is "the riches of
Christ" that are "unsearchable" (Eph. 3:8), and not the mystery itself, this
means that when Paul preached "Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the
mystery, which was kept secret since the world began" (Ro.16:25), he was already
preaching the same mystery he later wrote about in Eph.3:6 ("that the Gentiles
should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in
Christ by the gospel").